General Exam - k5cew.arpnet.us

Practice for Your Amateur Radio General License Exam

Prepare for the FCC Amateur Radio General Class license exam with our free practice tests. This exam covers intermediate radio theory, operating practices, and regulations—expanding your privileges beyond the Technician Class license to include HF bands and more operating modes.

Our practice exams simulate the actual test format with questions drawn from the official FCC question pool. Test your knowledge of topics including propagation, antennas, safety procedures, amateur radio practices, and electrical principles. Each practice session helps you identify areas to study and builds confidence for exam day.

Start practicing now and earn your General Class license to unlock worldwide communication opportunities on high-frequency bands!

General Exam

Amateur Radio General Exam

1 / 35

Which symbol in figure G7-1 represents a field effect transistor?

Symbol 2

Symbol 5

Symbol 4

Symbol 1

2 / 35

What is the effect of modulation duty cycle on RF exposure?

A higher duty cycle permits greater power levels to be transmitted

Low duty cycle transmitters are exempt from RF exposure evaluation requirements

High duty cycle transmitters are exempt from RF exposure requirements

A lower duty cycle permits greater power levels to be transmitted

3 / 35

On which of the following band segments may you operate if you are a Technician class operator and have an unexpired Certificate of Successful Completion of Examination (CSCE) for General class privileges?

On any General or Technician class band segment except 30 meters and 60 meters

On any General or Technician class band segment

Only the Technician band segments until your upgrade is posted in the FCC database

Only on the Technician band segments until you have a receipt for the FCC application fee payment

4 / 35

Which of the following would reduce RF interference caused by common-mode current on an audio cable?

Place a ferrite choke on the cable

Ground the center conductor of the audio cable causing the interference

Connect the center conductor to the shield of all cables to short circuit the RFI signal

Add an additional insulating jacket to the cable

5 / 35

Which of the following describes a waterfall display?

Frequency is horizontal, signal strength is intensity, time is vertical

Frequency is horizontal, signal strength is vertical, time is intensity

Frequency is vertical, signal strength is horizontal, time is intensity

Frequency is vertical, signal strength is intensity, time is horizontal

6 / 35

Which symbol in figure G7-1 represents a Zener diode?

Symbol 4

Symbol 1

Symbol 5

Symbol 11

7 / 35

What measurement is specified by FCC rules that regulate maximum power?

PEP input to the antenna

PEP output from the transmitter

RMS input to the antenna

RMS output from the transmitter

8 / 35

What could be a symptom caused by a ground loop in your station’s audio connections?

An item of station equipment starts to draw excessive amounts of current

You receive reports of “hum” on your station’s transmitted signal

You receive reports of harmonic interference from your station

The SWR reading for one or more antennas is suddenly very high

9 / 35

Which of these classes of amplifiers has the highest efficiency?

Class A

Class B

Class C

Class AB

10 / 35

What occurs in an LC circuit at resonance?

Resistance is cancelled

Inductive reactance and capacitive reactance cancel

The circuit radiates all its energy in the form of radio waves

Current and voltage are equal

11 / 35

Which of the following is characteristic of a switchmode power supply as compared to a linear power supply?

Fewer circuit components are required

High-frequency operation allows the use of smaller components

Inherently more stable

Faster switching time makes higher output voltage possible

12 / 35

What transformer turns ratio matches an antenna’s 600-ohm feed point impedance to a 50-ohm coaxial cable?

3.5 to 1

12 to 1

24 to 1

144 to 1

13 / 35

How does a signal that reads 20 dB over S9 compare to one that reads S9 on a receiver, assuming a properly calibrated S meter?

It is 10 times less powerful

It is 20 times more powerful

It is 20 times less powerful

It is 100 times more powerful

14 / 35

Which of the following is an effect of overmodulation?

Insufficient audio

Insufficient bandwidth

Excessive bandwidth

Frequency drift

15 / 35

With which of the following conditions must beacon stations comply?

All these choices are correct

The frequency must be posted on the internet or published in a national periodical

The frequency must be coordinated with the National Beacon Organization

No more than one beacon station may transmit in the same band from the same station location

16 / 35

What sound is heard from an audio device experiencing RF interference from a CW transmitter?

Severely distorted audio

On-and-off humming or clicking

A chirpy CW signal

A CW signal at a nearly pure audio frequency

17 / 35

When operating a station in South America by remote control over the internet from the US, what regulations apply?

Those of the remote station’s country and the FCC’s third-party regulations

Only those of the remote station’s country

Those of both the remote station’s country and the FCC

Only those of the FCC

18 / 35

Which parameter affects receiver sensitivity?

Input amplifier noise figure

All these choices are correct

Input amplifier gain

Demodulator stage bandwidth

19 / 35

Which of the following is the best instrument to use for checking the keying waveform of a CW transmitter?

A field strength meter

A sidetone monitor

A wavemeter

An oscilloscope

20 / 35

What is the approximate total resistance of a 100- and a 200-ohm resistor in parallel?

67 ohms

75 ohms

150 ohms

300 ohms

21 / 35

How does antenna height affect the azimuthal radiation pattern of a horizontal dipole HF antenna at elevation angles higher than about 45 degrees?

If the antenna is less than 1/2 wavelength high, radiation off the ends of the wire is eliminated

If the antenna is less than 1/2 wavelength high, the azimuthal pattern is almost omnidirectional

If the antenna is too high, the pattern becomes unpredictable

Antenna height has no effect on the pattern

22 / 35

Which of the following would disqualify a third party from participating in sending a message via an amateur station?

The third party’s amateur license has been revoked and not reinstated

The third party is speaking in a language other than English

All these choices are correct

The third party is not a US citizen

23 / 35

Which of the following is a common way to adjust the feed point impedance of an elevated quarter-wave ground-plane vertical antenna to be approximately 50 ohms?

Slope the radials upward

Lengthen the radials beyond one wavelength

Coil the radials

Slope the radials downward

24 / 35

How does the ionosphere affect radio waves with frequencies below the MUF and above the LUF?

They are amplified by interaction with the ionosphere

They pass through the ionosphere

They are refracted back to Earth

They are refracted and trapped in the ionosphere to circle Earth

25 / 35

Which of the following indicates that you are looking for an HF contact with any station?

Sign your call sign once, followed by the words “listening for a call” — if no answer, change frequency and repeat

Say “QTC” followed by “this is” and your call sign — if no answer, change frequency and repeat

Repeat “CQ” a few times, followed by “this is,” then your call sign a few times, then pause to listen, repeat as necessary

Transmit an unmodulated carried for approximately 10 seconds, followed by “this is” and your call sign, and pause to listen — repeat as necessary

26 / 35

Which of the following complies with commonly accepted amateur practice when choosing a frequency on which to initiate a call?

Identify your station by transmitting your call sign at least 3 times

Listen on the frequency for at least two minutes to be sure it is clear

All these choices are correct

Follow the voluntary band plan

27 / 35

In free space, how does the gain of two three-element, horizontally polarized Yagi antennas spaced vertically 1/2 wavelength apart typically compare to the gain of a single three-element Yagi?

Approximately 9 dB higher

Approximately 3 dB higher

Approximately 6 dB higher

Approximately 1.5 dB higher

28 / 35

What dB change represents a factor of two increase or decrease in power?

Approximately 2 dB

Approximately 6 dB

Approximately 9 dB

Approximately 3 dB

29 / 35

Which of the following components should be added to an inductor to increase the inductance?

An inductor in parallel

An inductor in series

A capacitor in parallel

A capacitor in series

30 / 35

What are the restrictions on the use of abbreviations or procedural signals in the amateur service?

They may be used if they do not obscure the meaning of a message

Only “Q” signals are permitted

They are limited to those expressly listed in Part 97 of the FCC rules

They are not permitted

31 / 35

What control is typically adjusted for proper ALC setting on a single sideband transceiver?

Attenuator level

RF clipping level

Transmit audio or microphone gain

Antenna inductance or capacitance

32 / 35

How does an inductor react to AC?

As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases

As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases

As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases

As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases

33 / 35

What is the total bandwidth of an FM phone transmission having 5 kHz deviation and 3 kHz modulating frequency?

5 kHz

8 kHz

3 kHz

16 kHz

34 / 35

When may a 10-meter repeater retransmit the 2-meter signal from a station that has a Technician class control operator?

Under no circumstances

Only if the 10-meter repeater control operator holds at least a General class license

Only during an FCC-declared general state of communications emergency

Only if the station on 10-meters is operating under a Special Temporary Authorization allowing such retransmission

35 / 35

What standing wave ratio results from connecting a 50-ohm feed line to a 200-ohm resistive load?

2:1

1:2

1:4

4:1

Your score is

The average score is 93%

G1A General class control operator frequency privileges

General class control operator frequency privileges

1 / 11

When General class licensees are not permitted to use the entire voice portion of a band, which portion of the voice segment is available to them?

The lower frequency portion

The upper frequency portion

The lower frequency portion on frequencies below 7.3 MHz, and the upper portion on frequencies above 14.150 MHz

The upper frequency portion on frequencies below 7.3 MHz, and the lower portion on frequencies above 14.150 MHz

2 / 11

What portion of the 10-meter band is available for repeater use?

The entire band

The portion between 28.1 MHz and 28.2 MHz

The portion between 28.3 MHz and 28.5 MHz

The portion above 29.5 MHz

3 / 11

Which of the following frequencies is within the General class portion of the 15-meter band?

14250 kHz

18155 kHz

21300 kHz

24900 kHz

4 / 11

Which HF bands have segments exclusively allocated to Amateur Extra licensees?

All HF bands

80 meters, 40 meters, 20 meters, and 15 meters

All HF bands except 160 meters and 10 meters

60 meters, 30 meters, 17 meters, and 12 meters

5 / 11

On which amateur frequencies in the 10-meter band may stations with a General class control operator transmit CW emissions?

28.000 MHz to 28.025 MHz only

28.000 MHz to 28.300 MHz only

28.025 MHz to 28.300 MHz only

The entire band

6 / 11

Which of the following applies when the FCC rules designate the amateur service as a secondary user on a band?

Amateur stations must record the call sign of the primary service station before operating on a frequency assigned to that station

Amateur stations may use the band only during emergencies

Amateur stations must not cause harmful interference to primary users and must accept interference from primary users

Amateur stations may only operate during specific hours of the day, while primary users are permitted 24-hour use of the band

7 / 11

On which of the following frequencies are General class licensees prohibited from operating as control operator?

7.125 MHz to 7.175 MHz

28.000 MHz to 28.025 MHz

21.275 MHz to 21.300 MHz

All of the above

8 / 11

Which of the following amateur bands is restricted to communication only on specific channels, rather than frequency ranges?

11 meters

12 meters

30 meters

60 meters

9 / 11

On which of the following bands is image transmission prohibited?

160 meters

30 meters

20 meters

12 meters

10 / 11

On which of the following bands is phone operation prohibited?

160 meters

30 meters

17 meters

12 meters

11 / 11

On which HF and/or MF amateur bands are there portions where General class licensees cannot transmit?

60 meters, 30 meters, 17 meters, and 12 meters

160 meters, 60 meters, 15 meters, and 12 meters

80 meters, 40 meters, 20 meters, and 15 meters

80 meters, 20 meters, 15 meters, and 10 meters

Your score is

The average score is 95%

G1B – Antenna structure limitations

1 / 11

What is the maximum height above ground for an antenna structure not near a public use airport without requiring notification to the FAA and registration with the FCC?

250 feet

200 feet

50 feet

100 feet

2 / 11

What are the restrictions on the use of abbreviations or procedural signals in the amateur service?

Only “Q” signals are permitted

They are limited to those expressly listed in Part 97 of the FCC rules

They may be used if they do not obscure the meaning of a message

They are not permitted

3 / 11

Which of the following one-way transmissions are permitted?

Transmissions to assist with learning the International Morse code

All these choices are correct

Unidentified test transmissions of less than 10 seconds in duration

Regular transmissions offering equipment for sale, if intended for amateur radio use

4 / 11

With which of the following conditions must beacon stations comply?

The frequency must be coordinated with the National Beacon Organization

All these choices are correct

The frequency must be posted on the internet or published in a national periodical

No more than one beacon station may transmit in the same band from the same station location

5 / 11

Which of the following transmissions is permitted for all amateur stations?

Occasional retransmission of weather and propagation forecast information from US government stations

Unidentified transmissions of less than 10 seconds duration for test purposes only

Encrypted messages, if not intended to facilitate a criminal act

Automatic retransmission of other amateur signals by any amateur station

6 / 11

Under what conditions are state and local governments permitted to regulate amateur radio antenna structures?

Only when such structures exceed 50 feet in height and are clearly visible 1,000 feet from the structure

Amateur Service communications must be reasonably accommodated, and regulations must constitute the minimum practical to accommodate a legitimate purpose of the state or local entity

At any time and to any extent necessary to accomplish a legitimate purpose of the state or local entity, provided that proper filings are made with the FCC

Under no circumstances, FCC rules take priority

7 / 11

What is the power limit for beacon stations?

100 watts PEP output

10 watts PEP output

20 watts PEP output

200 watts PEP output

8 / 11

On what HF frequencies are automatically controlled beacons permitted?

28.20 MHz to 28.30 MHz

On any frequency if power is less than 1 watt

21.08 MHz to 21.09 MHz

On any frequency if transmissions are in Morse code

9 / 11

When is it permissible to communicate with amateur stations in countries outside the areas administered by the Federal Communications Commission?

When the contact is with amateurs in any country except those whose administrations have notified the ITU that they object to such communications

Only when the contact is with amateurs licensed by a country which is a member of the International Amateur Radio Union, or by a territory possessed by such a country

Only when the contact is with amateurs licensed by a country which is a member of the United Nations, or by a territory possessed by such a country

Only when the foreign country has a formal third-party agreement filed with the FCC

10 / 11

Who or what determines “good engineering and good amateur practice,” as applied to the operation of an amateur station in all respects not covered by the Part 97 rules?

The FCC

The ITU

The IEEE

The control operator

11 / 11

Which of the following is a purpose of a beacon station as identified in the FCC rules?

Transmission of bulletins of general interest to amateur radio licensees

Automatic identification of repeaters

Observation of propagation and reception

All these choices are correct

Your score is

The average score is 100%

G1C – Transmitter power regulations

Transmitter power regulations

1 / 11

What is the maximum bandwidth permitted by FCC rules for amateur radio stations transmitting on USB frequencies in the 60-meter band?

1.8 kHz

3 kHz

2.8 kHz

5.6 kHz

2 / 11

What is the maximum power limit on the 60-meter band?

ERP of 100 watts PEP with respect to a dipole

1500 watts PEP

10 watts RMS

ERP of 100 watts PEP with respect to an isotropic antenna

3 / 11

What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data emission transmissions on the 10-meter band?

300 baud

1200 baud

56 kilobaud

19.6 kilobaud

4 / 11

What is the limit for transmitter power on the 1.8 MHz band?

1200 watts PEP output

1000 watts PEP output

1500 watts PEP output

200 watts PEP output

5 / 11

What is the limit for transmitter power on the 28 MHz band for a General Class control operator?

2000 watts PEP output

1500 watts PEP output

100 watts PEP output

1000 watts PEP output

6 / 11

What is the maximum transmitter power an amateur station may use on 10.140 MHz?

1000 watts PEP output

1500 watts PEP output

2000 watts PEP output

200 watts PEP output

7 / 11

What measurement is specified by FCC rules that regulate maximum power?

RMS output from the transmitter

PEP output from the transmitter

RMS input to the antenna

PEP input to the antenna

8 / 11

What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data emission transmitted at frequencies below 28 MHz?

300 baud

19.6 kilobaud

56 kilobaud

1200 baud

9 / 11

What is the maximum transmitter power an amateur station may use on the 12-meter band?

An effective radiated power equivalent to 100 watts from a half-wave dipole

50 watts PEP output

1500 watts PEP output

200 watts PEP output

10 / 11

What must be done before using a new digital protocol on the air?

Type-certify equipment to FCC standards

Publicly document the technical characteristics of the protocol

Obtain an experimental license from the FCC

Submit a rule-making proposal to the FCC describing the codes and methods of the technique

11 / 11

Which of the following is required by the FCC rules when operating in the 60-meter band?

If you are using an antenna other than a dipole, you must keep a record of the gain of your antenna

You must keep a record of the date, time, frequency, power level, and stations worked

You must keep a record of all third-party traffic

You must keep a record of the manufacturer of your equipment and the antenna used

Your score is

The average score is 84%

G1D – Volunteer Examiners and Volunteer Examiner Coordinators

Volunteer Examiners and Volunteer Examiner Coordinators

1 / 12

What license examinations may you administer as an accredited Volunteer Examiner holding a General class operator license?

Amateur Extra, General, and Technician

General and Technician

None, only Amateur Extra class licensees may be accredited

Technician only

2 / 12

What is the minimum age that one must be to qualify as an accredited Volunteer Examiner?

16 years

18 years

There is no age limit

21 years

3 / 12

Volunteer Examiners are accredited by what organization?

The Universal Licensing System

The Wireless Telecommunications Bureau

A Volunteer Examiner Coordinator

The Federal Communications Commission

4 / 12

Which of the following criteria must be met for a non-US citizen to be an accredited Volunteer Examiner?

The person’s home citizenship must be in ITU region 2

The person must be a resident of the US for a minimum of 5 years

The person must hold an FCC granted amateur radio license of General class or above

None of these choices is correct; a non-US citizen cannot be a Volunteer Examiner

5 / 12

When operating a station in South America by remote control over the internet from the US, what regulations apply?

Only those of the FCC

Only those of the remote station’s country

Those of both the remote station’s country and the FCC

Those of the remote station’s country and the FCC’s third-party regulations

6 / 12

Who must observe the administration of a Technician class license examination?

At least three Volunteer Examiners of General class or higher

At least two Volunteer Examiners of General class or higher

At least two Volunteer Examiners of Technician class or higher

At least three Volunteer Examiners of Technician class

7 / 12

Who may receive partial credit for the elements represented by an expired amateur radio license?

Any person who previously held an amateur license issued by another country, but only if that country has a current reciprocal licensing agreement with the FCC

Anyone who held an FCC-issued amateur radio license that expired not less than 5 and not more than 15 years ago

Any person who can demonstrate that they once held an FCC-issued General, Advanced, or Amateur Extra class license that was not revoked by the FCC

Only persons who once held an FCC issued Novice, Technician, or Technician Plus license

8 / 12

How long is a Certificate of Successful Completion of Examination (CSCE) valid for exam element credit?

365 days

For as long as your current license is valid

180 days

30 days

9 / 12

When operating a US station by remote control from outside the country, what license is required of the control operator?

A license from the foreign country and a special remote station permit from the FCC

Only a license from the foreign country, as long as the call sign includes identification of portable operation in the US

Only an appropriate US operator/primary license and a special remote station permit from the FCC

A US operator/primary station license

10 / 12

What action is required to obtain a new General class license after a previously held license has expired and the two-year grace period has passed?

There are no requirements other than being able to show a copy of the expired license

Contact the FCC to have the license reinstated

They must have a letter from the FCC showing they once held an amateur or commercial license

The applicant must show proof of the appropriate expired license grant and pass the current Element 2 exam

11 / 12

Until an upgrade to General class is shown in the FCC database, when must a Technician licensee identify with “AG” after their call sign?

A special identifier is not required if their General class license application has been filed with the FCC

Whenever they operate on any amateur frequency

Whenever they operate using Technician frequency privileges

Whenever they operate using General class frequency privileges

12 / 12

On any General or Technician class band segment

On any General or Technician class band segment except 30 meters and 60 meters

Only on the Technician band segments until you have a receipt for the FCC application fee payment

Only the Technician band segments until your upgrade is posted in the FCC database

Your score is

The average score is 100%

G1E – Control categories

Control categories; repeater regulations; third-party rules; ITU regions; automatically controlled digital station

1 / 12

What is required to conduct communications with a digital station operating under automatic control outside the automatic control band segments?

The station initiating the contact must be under local or remote control

The interrogating transmission must be made by another automatically controlled station

No third-party traffic may be transmitted

The control operator of the interrogating station must hold an Amateur Extra class license

2 / 12

The frequency allocations of which ITU region apply to radio amateurs operating in North and South America?

Region 2

Region 3

Region 1

Region 4

3 / 12

When may a 10-meter repeater retransmit the 2-meter signal from a station that has a Technician class control operator?

Only if the 10-meter repeater control operator holds at least a General class license

Under no circumstances

Only if the station on 10-meters is operating under a Special Temporary Authorization allowing such retransmission

Only during an FCC-declared general state of communications emergency

4 / 12

What is the maximum PEP output allowed for spread spectrum transmissions?

100 watts

1500 watts

10 watts

100 milliwatts

5 / 12

What are the restrictions on messages sent to a third party in a country with which there is a Third-Party Agreement?

The message must be limited to no longer than 1 minute in duration and the name of the third party must be recorded in the station log

They must relate to amateur radio, or remarks of a personal character, or messages relating to emergencies or disaster relief

They must be for other licensed amateurs

They must relate to emergencies or disaster relief

6 / 12

Which of the following conditions require a licensed amateur radio operator to take specific steps to avoid harmful interference to other users or facilities?

All these choices are correct

When using a band where the Amateur Service is secondary

When a station is transmitting spread spectrum emissions

When operating within one mile of an FCC Monitoring Station

7 / 12

When may third-party messages be transmitted via remote control?

Only when the message is intended for licensed radio amateurs

Under no circumstances except for emergencies

Under any circumstances in which third party messages are permitted by FCC rules

Only when the message is intended for third parties in areas where licensing is controlled by the FCC

8 / 12

Under what circumstances are messages that are sent via digital modes exempt from Part 97 third-party rules that apply to other modes of communication?

Under no circumstances

When messages are not encrypted

When messages are encrypted

When under automatic control

9 / 12

In what part of the 2.4 GHz band may an amateur station communicate with non-licensed Wi-Fi stations?

Channels 1 through 4

Channels 42 through 45

Anywhere in the band

No part

10 / 12

Why should an amateur operator normally avoid transmitting on 14.100, 18.110, 21.150, 24.930 and 28.200 MHz?

A system of propagation beacon stations operates on those frequencies

These frequencies are set aside for emergency operations

These frequencies are set aside for bulletins from the FCC

A system of automatic digital stations operates on those frequencies

11 / 12

Which of the following would disqualify a third party from participating in sending a message via an amateur station?

The third party’s amateur license has been revoked and not reinstated

All these choices are correct

The third party is speaking in a language other than English

The third party is not a US citizen

12 / 12

On what bands may automatically controlled stations transmitting RTTY or data emissions communicate with other automatically controlled digital stations?

Only in the non-phone Extra Class segments of the bands

On any band segment where digital operation is permitted

Anywhere in the 6-meter or shorter wavelength bands, and in limited segments of some of the HF bands

Anywhere in the non-phone segments of the 10-meter or shorter wavelength bands

Your score is

The average score is 96%

G2A – Phone operating procedures

Phone operating procedures: USB/LSB conventions, breaking into a contact, transmitter setup for voice operation; answering DX stations

1 / 11

Which mode of voice communication is most commonly used on the HF amateur bands?

Single sideband

Single phase modulation

Double sideband

Frequency modulation

2 / 11

Which of the following is an advantage of using single sideband, as compared to other analog voice modes on the HF amateur bands?

Ease of tuning on receive and immunity to impulse noise

Less subject to interference from atmospheric static crashes

Less bandwidth used and greater power efficiency

Very high-fidelity voice modulation

3 / 11

Generally, who should respond to a station in the contiguous 48 states calling “CQ DX”?

Only stations in Germany

Any stations outside the lower 48 states

Any caller is welcome to respond

Only contest stations

4 / 11

Which mode is most commonly used for SSB voice communications in the VHF and UHF bands?

Upper sideband

Double sideband

Suppressed sideband

Lower sideband

5 / 11

What control is typically adjusted for proper ALC setting on a single sideband transceiver?

Antenna inductance or capacitance

Transmit audio or microphone gain

RF clipping level

Attenuator level

6 / 11

Which mode is most commonly used for voice communications on frequencies of 14 MHz or higher?

Suppressed sideband

Lower sideband

Double sideband

Upper sideband

7 / 11

Which mode is most commonly used for voice communications on the 17- and 12-meter bands?

Lower sideband

Double sideband

Upper sideband

Suppressed sideband

8 / 11

Which of the following statements is true of single sideband (SSB)?

Only one sideband and the carrier are transmitted; the other sideband is suppressed

Only one sideband is transmitted; the other sideband and carrier are suppressed

SSB is the only voice mode authorized on the 160-, 75-, and 40-meter amateur bands ~~

SSB is the only voice mode authorized on the 20-, 15-, and 10-meter amateur bands

9 / 11

What is the recommended way to break into a phone contact?

Say “CQ” followed by the call sign of either station

Say your call sign once

Say “QRZ” several times, followed by your call sign

Say “Breaker Breaker”

10 / 11

Which of the following statements is true of VOX operation versus PTT operation?

It provides more power output

It allows “hands free” operation

The received signal is more natural sounding

It occupies less bandwidth

11 / 11

Which mode is most commonly used for voice communications on the 160-, 75-, and 40-meter bands?

Double sideband

Lower sideband

Suppressed sideband

Upper sideband

Your score is

The average score is 100%

G2B – Operating effectively

Operating effectively; band plans; drills and emergencies; RACES operation

1 / 11

Which of the following is true concerning access to frequencies?

Nets have priority

Except during emergencies, no amateur station has priority access to any frequency

QSOs in progress have priority

Contest operations should yield to non-contest use of frequencies

2 / 11

Which of the following is good amateur practice for net management?

Always use multiple sets of phonetics during check-in

Have a backup frequency in case of interference or poor conditions

All these choices are correct

Transmit the full net roster at the beginning of every session

3 / 11

When selecting a CW transmitting frequency, what minimum separation from other stations should be used to minimize interference to stations on adjacent frequencies?

5 Hz to 50 Hz

1 kHz to 3 kHz

150 Hz to 500 Hz

3 kHz to 6 kHz

4 / 11

When selecting an SSB transmitting frequency, what minimum separation should be used to minimize interference to stations on adjacent frequencies?

150 Hz to 500 Hz

Approximately 6 kHz

5 Hz to 50 Hz

2 kHz to 3 kHz

5 / 11

What is the first thing you should do if you are communicating with another amateur station and hear a station in distress break in?

Immediately decrease power to avoid interfering with the station in distress

Immediately cease all transmissions

Acknowledge the station in distress and determine what assistance may be needed

Inform your local emergency coordinator

6 / 11

How can you avoid harmful interference on an apparently clear frequency before calling CQ on CW or phone?

Listen for 2 minutes before calling CQ

Send “QSY” on CW or if using phone, announce “the frequency is in use,” then give your call sign and listen for a response

Send the letter “V” in Morse code several times and listen for a response, or say “test” several times and listen for a response

Send “QRL?” on CW, followed by your call sign; or, if using phone, ask if the frequency is in use, followed by your call sign

7 / 11

What is the voluntary band plan restriction for US stations transmitting within the 48 contiguous states in the 50.1 MHz to 50.125 MHz band segment?

Only SSTV contacts

Only contacts with other stations within the 48 contiguous states

Only digital contacts

Only contacts with stations not within the 48 contiguous states

8 / 11

How often may RACES training drills and tests be routinely conducted without special authorization?

No more than 1 hour per month

No more than 1 hour per week

No more than 2 hours per week

No more than 2 hours per month

9 / 11

Who may be the control operator of an amateur station transmitting in RACES to assist relief operations during a disaster?

Any control operator when normal communication systems are operational

Only a person holding an FCC-issued amateur operator license

A person holding an FCC-issued amateur operator license or an appropriate government official

Only a RACES net control operator

10 / 11

What is good amateur practice if propagation changes during a contact creating interference from other stations using the frequency?

Switch to the opposite sideband

Decrease power and continue to transmit

Attempt to resolve the interference problem with the other stations in a mutually acceptable manner

Advise the interfering stations that you are on the frequency and that you have priority

11 / 11

Which of the following complies with commonly accepted amateur practice when choosing a frequency on which to initiate a call?

Identify your station by transmitting your call sign at least 3 times

All these choices are correct

Follow the voluntary band plan

Listen on the frequency for at least two minutes to be sure it is clear

Your score is

The average score is 91%

G2C – CW operating procedures and procedural signals

CW operating procedures and procedural signals; Q signals; full break-in

1 / 11

What does the Q signal “QSL” mean?

We have already confirmed the contact

I have received and understood

Send slower

We have worked before

2 / 11

What should you do if a CW station sends “QRS?”

Change frequency

Send slower

Repeat everything twice

Increase your power

3 / 11

What does the Q signal “QRN” mean?

I am troubled by static

Zero beat my signal

Stop sending

Send more slowly

4 / 11

What prosign is sent to indicate the end of a formal message when using CW?

5 / 11

When sending CW, what does a “C” mean when added to the RST report?

Chirpy or unstable signal

Key clicks

100 percent copy

Report was read from an S meter rather than estimated

6 / 11

What does the Q signal “QRL?” mean?

“Are you busy?” or “Is this frequency in use?”

“Are you operating full break-in?” or “Can you operate full break-in?”

“Will you keep the frequency clear?”

"Are you listening only for a specific station?”

7 / 11

What does the term “zero beat” mean in CW operation?

Sending without error

Matching the transmit frequency to the frequency of a received signal

Operating split to avoid interference on frequency

Matching the speed of the transmitting station

8 / 11

Which of the following describes full break-in CW operation (QSK)?

An operator must activate a manual send/receive switch before and after every transmission

Breaking stations send the Morse code prosign “BK”

Automatic keyers, instead of hand keys, are used to send Morse code

Transmitting stations can receive between code characters and elements

9 / 11

What does it mean when a CW operator sends “KN” at the end of a transmission?

Operating full break-in

Closing station now

Listening only for a specific station or stations

No US stations should call

10 / 11

What is the best speed to use when answering a CQ in Morse code?

The fastest speed at which you are comfortable copying, but no slower than the CQ

At the standard calling speed of 5 wpm

The fastest speed at which you are comfortable copying, but no faster than the CQ

At the standard calling speed of 10 wpm

11 / 11

What does the Q signal “QRV” mean?

There is interference on the frequency

I am quitting for the day

You are sending too fast

I am ready to receive

Your score is

The average score is 100%

G2D – Volunteer Monitor Program; HF operations

Volunteer Monitor Program; HF operations

1 / 11

Which of the following are objectives of the Volunteer Monitor Program?

To encourage amateur radio operators to self-regulate and comply with the rules

To provide emergency and public safety communications

To coordinate repeaters for efficient and orderly spectrum usage

To conduct efficient and orderly amateur licensing examinations

2 / 11

Which of the following are examples of the NATO Phonetic Alphabet?

America, Boston, Canada, Denmark

Able, Baker, Charlie, Dog

Alpha, Bravo, Charlie, Delta

Adam, Boy, Charles, David

3 / 11

Why do many amateurs keep a station log?

The FCC requires a log of all international contacts

To help with a reply if the FCC requests information about your station

The log provides evidence of operation needed to renew a license without retest

The FCC requires a log of all international third-party traffic

4 / 11

What procedure may be used by Volunteer Monitors to localize a station whose continuous carrier is holding a repeater on in their area?

Compare beam headings on the repeater input from their home locations with that of other Volunteer Monitors

Compare signal strengths between the input and output of the repeater

Compare vertical and horizontal signal strengths on the input frequency

All these choices are correct

5 / 11

Which of the following is required when participating in a contest on HF frequencies?

Submit a log to the contest sponsor

Identify your station according to normal FCC regulations

All these choices are correct

Send a QSL card to the stations worked, or QSL via Logbook of The World

6 / 11

How is a directional antenna pointed when making a “long-path” contact with another station?

Toward the rising sun

180 degrees from the station’s short-path heading

Along the gray line

Toward the north

7 / 11

Which of the following indicates that you are looking for an HF contact with any station?

Repeat “CQ” a few times, followed by “this is,” then your call sign a few times, then pause to listen, repeat as necessary

Say “QTC” followed by “this is” and your call sign -- if no answer, change frequency and repeat

Transmit an unmodulated carried for approximately 10 seconds, followed by “this is” and your call sign, and pause to listen -- repeat as necessary

Sign your call sign once, followed by the words “listening for a call” -- if no answer, change frequency and repeat

8 / 11

What is QRP operation?

Transmission using Quick Response Protocol

Remote piloted model control

Low-power transmit operation

Traffic relay procedure net operation

9 / 11

What is the Volunteer Monitor Program?

Amateur volunteers who use their station equipment to help civil defense organizations in times of emergency

Amateur volunteers who are formally enlisted to monitor the airwaves for rules violations

Amateur volunteers who conduct amateur licensing examinations

Amateur volunteers who conduct frequency coordination for amateur VHF repeaters

10 / 11

Which of the following describes an azimuthal projection map?

A map that shows true bearings and distances from a specific location

A map that shows accurate land masses

A map that shows the number of degrees longitude that an amateur satellite appears to move westward at the equator with each orbit

A map that shows the angle at which an amateur satellite crosses the equator

11 / 11

Why are signal reports typically exchanged at the beginning of an HF contact?

To allow each station to calibrate their frequency display

To be sure the contact will count for award programs

To follow standard radiogram structure

To allow each station to operate according to conditions

Your score is

The average score is 100%

G2E – Digital mode operating procedures

Digital mode operating procedures

1 / 15

What is the primary purpose of an Amateur Radio Emergency Data Network (AREDN) mesh network?

To provide DX spotting reports to aid contesters and DXers

To provide FM repeater coverage in remote areas

To provide high-speed data services during an emergency or community event

To provide real time propagation data by monitoring amateur radio transmissions worldwide

2 / 15

What is the most common frequency shift for RTTY emissions in the amateur HF bands?

425 Hz

85 Hz

850 Hz

170 Hz

3 / 15

In what segment of the 20-meter band are most digital mode operations commonly found?

In the middle of the CW segment, near 14.100 MHz

Between 14.070 MHz and 14.100 MHz

At the bottom of the slow-scan TV segment, near 14.230 MHz

At the top of the SSB phone segment, near 14.325 MHz

4 / 15

What is VARA?

A digital protocol used with Winlink

A DX spotting system using a network of software defined radios

A radio direction finding system used on VHF and UHF

A low signal-to-noise digital mode used for EME (moonbounce)

5 / 15

What symptoms may result from other signals interfering with a PACTOR or VARA transmission?

Frequent retries or timeouts

Long pauses in message transmission

All these choices are correct

Failure to establish a connection between stations

6 / 15

Which of the following is a way to establish contact with a digital messaging system gateway station?

Send QRL in Morse code

Transmit a connect message on the station’s published frequency

Respond when the station broadcasts its SSID

Send an email to the system control operator

7 / 15

Which of the following describes Winlink?

An amateur radio wireless network to send and receive email on the internet

All of the above

A form of Packet Radio

A wireless network capable of both VHF and HF band operation

8 / 15

Which of the following is a common location for FT8?

Approximately 14.110 MHz to 14.113 MHz

Anywhere in the voice portion of the band

Anywhere in the CW portion of the band

Approximately 14.074 MHz to 14.077 MHz

9 / 15

What is another name for a Winlink Remote Message Server?

Printer/Server

Terminal Node Controller

RJ-45

Gateway

10 / 15

Which of the following is good practice when choosing a transmitting frequency to answer a station calling CQ using FT8?

Call on any frequency in the waterfall except the station’s frequency

Find a clear frequency during the same time slot as the calling station

Always call on the station’s frequency

Find a clear frequency during the alternate time slot to the calling station

11 / 15

What could be wrong if you cannot decode an RTTY or other FSK signal even though it is apparently tuned in properly?

You may be listening on the wrong sideband

All these choices are correct

You may have selected the wrong baud rate

The mark and space frequencies may be reversed

12 / 15

Which of the following is required when using FT8?

A special hardware modem

Receiver attenuator set to -12 dB

Computer time accurate to within approximately 1 second

A vertically polarized antenna

13 / 15

Which mode is normally used when sending RTTY signals via AFSK with an SSB transmitter?

DSB

LSB

USB

14 / 15

What is the standard sideband for JT65, JT9, FT4, or FT8 digital signal when using AFSK?

USB

DSB

LSB

SSB

15 / 15

How do you join a contact between two stations using the PACTOR protocol?

Joining an existing contact is not possible, PACTOR connections are limited to two stations

Send a NAK code

Send broadcast packets containing your call sign while in MONITOR mode

Transmit a steady carrier until the PACTOR protocol times out and disconnects

Your score is

The average score is 91%

G3A – Sunspots and solar radiation

Sunspots and solar radiation; geomagnetic field and stability indices

1 / 14

What causes HF propagation conditions to vary periodically in a 26- to 28-day cycle?

Cyclic variation in Earth’s radiation belts

Long term oscillations in the upper atmosphere

Rotation of the Sun’s surface layers around its axis

The position of the Moon in its orbit

2 / 14

How long does it take a coronal mass ejection to affect radio propagation on Earth?

15 hours to several days

28 days

4 to 8 minutes

14 days

3 / 14

Approximately how long does it take the increased ultraviolet and X-ray radiation from a solar flare to affect radio propagation on Earth?

28 days

8 minutes

1 to 2 hours

20 to 40 hours

4 / 14

What is the solar flux index?

A measure of the highest frequency that is useful for ionospheric propagation between two points on Earth

A measure of solar radiation with a wavelength of 10.7 centimeters

Another name for the American sunspot number

A count of sunspots that is adjusted for solar emissions

5 / 14

What is a geomagnetic storm?

A temporary disturbance in Earth’s geomagnetic field

Ripples in the geomagnetic force

A sudden drop in the solar flux index

A thunderstorm that affects radio propagation

6 / 14

How can a geomagnetic storm affect HF propagation?

Improve high-latitude HF propagation

Degrade high-latitude HF propagation

Degrade ground wave propagation

Improve ground wave propagation

7 / 14

How does a higher sunspot number affect HF propagation?

A zero sunspot number indicates that radio propagation is not possible on any band

Higher sunspot numbers generally indicate a greater probability of good propagation at higher frequencies

A zero sunspot number indicates undisturbed conditions

Lower sunspot numbers generally indicate greater probability of sporadic E propagation

8 / 14

What does the A-index measure?

The amount of polarization of the Sun’s electric field

The long-term stability of Earth’s geomagnetic field

The relative position of sunspots on the surface of the Sun

The solar radio flux at Boulder, Colorado

9 / 14

Which of the following are the least reliable bands for long-distance communications during periods of low solar activity?

60 meters and 40 meters

80 meters and 160 meters

30 meters and 20 meters

15 meters, 12 meters, and 10 meters

10 / 14

At what point in the solar cycle does the 20-meter band usually support worldwide propagation during daylight hours?

At the summer solstice

Only at the maximum point

At any point

Only at the minimum point

11 / 14

What does the K-index measure?

The relative position of sunspots on the surface of the Sun

The short-term stability of the Sun’s magnetic field

The short-term stability of Earth’s geomagnetic field

The solar radio flux at Boulder, Colorado

12 / 14

How is long distance radio communication usually affected by the charged particles that reach Earth from solar coronal holes?

HF communication is improved

HF communication is disturbed

VHF/UHF ducting is improved

VHF/UHF ducting is disturbed

13 / 14

How can high geomagnetic activity benefit radio communications?

Creates auroras that can reflect VHF signals

Reduce long delayed echoes

Increases signal strength for HF signals passing through the polar regions

Improve HF long path propagation

14 / 14

What effect does a sudden ionospheric disturbance have on the daytime ionospheric propagation?

It enhances propagation on all HF frequencies

None, because only areas on the night side of the Earth are affected

It disrupts signals on lower frequencies more than those on higher frequencies

It disrupts communications via satellite more than direct communications

Your score is

The average score is 78%

G3B – Maximum Usable Frequency

Maximum Usable Frequency; Lowest Usable Frequency; short path and long path propagation;

1 / 12

What does LUF stand for?

The Lowest Usable Frequency for communications between two specific points

The Lowest Usable Frequency during a 24-hour period

Lowest Usable Frequency during the past 60 minutes

Lowest Usable Frequency for communications to any point outside a 100-mile radius

2 / 12

What usually happens to radio waves with frequencies below the LUF?

They are attenuated before reaching the destination

They are refracted back to Earth

They pass through the ionosphere

They are refracted and trapped in the ionosphere to circle Earth

3 / 12

What happens to HF propagation when the LUF exceeds the MUF?

Propagation over the path on all HF frequencies is enhanced

Double-hop propagation along the path is more common

Propagation via ordinary skywave communications is not possible over that path

HF communications over the path are enhanced

4 / 12

Which of the following is a way to determine current propagation on a desired band from your station?

Use a network of automated receiving stations on the internet to see where your transmissions are being received

Send a series of dots and listen for echoes

Check the A-index

All these choices are correct

5 / 12

What factors affect the MUF?

Path distance and location

All these choices are correct

Solar radiation and ionospheric disturbances

Time of day and season

6 / 12

What is the approximate maximum distance along the Earth’s surface normally covered in one hop using the F2 region?

180 miles

1,200 miles

12,000 miles

2,500 miles

7 / 12

What does MUF stand for?

The Maximum Usable Frequency for communications between two points

The Maximum Usable Frequency during a 24-hour period

The Minimum Usable Frequency during a 24-hour period

The Minimum Usable Frequency for communications between two points

8 / 12

What is the approximate maximum distance along the Earth’s surface normally covered in one hop using the E region?

180 miles

2,500 miles

1,200 miles

12,000 miles

9 / 12

Which of the following is typical of the lower HF frequencies during the summer?

Heavy distortion on signals due to photon absorption

World-wide propagation during daylight hours

High levels of atmospheric noise or static

Poor propagation at any time of day

10 / 12

What is a characteristic of skywave signals arriving at your location by both short-path and long-path propagation?

A slightly delayed echo might be heard

The signal might be cancelled causing severe attenuation

Signal strength increased by 3 dB

Periodic fading approximately every 10 seconds

11 / 12

Which frequency will have the least attenuation for long-distance skip propagation?

Just above the LUF

Just below the critical frequency

Just above the critical frequency

Just below the MUF

12 / 12

How does the ionosphere affect radio waves with frequencies below the MUF and above the LUF?

They are refracted back to Earth

They are amplified by interaction with the ionosphere

They are refracted and trapped in the ionosphere to circle Earth

They pass through the ionosphere

Your score is

The average score is 100%

G3C – Ionospheric regions

Ionospheric regions; critical angle and frequency; HF scatter; near vertical incidence skywave (NVIS)

1 / 11

Why is skip propagation via the F2 region longer than that via the other ionospheric regions?

Because of the Doppler effect

Because of temperature inversions

Because it is the highest

Because it is the densest

2 / 11

Why is long-distance communication on the 40-, 60-, 80-, and 160-meter bands more difficult during the day?

The F region absorbs signals at these frequencies during daylight hours

The E region is unstable during daylight hours

The D region absorbs signals at these frequencies during daylight hours

The F region is unstable during daylight hours

3 / 11

What is meant by the term “critical frequency” at a given incidence angle?

The frequency at which the signal-to-noise ratio is 6 dB

The highest frequency which is refracted back to Earth

The frequency at which the signal-to-noise ratio approaches unity

The lowest frequency which is refracted back to Earth

4 / 11

What is a characteristic of HF scatter?

Signals have a fluttering sound

Phone signals have high intelligibility

Scatter propagation occurs only at night

There are very large, sudden swings in signal strength

5 / 11

What does the term “critical angle” mean, as applied to radio wave propagation?

The highest takeoff angle that will return a radio wave to Earth under specific ionospheric conditions

The lowest takeoff angle that will return a radio wave to Earth under specific ionospheric conditions

The long path azimuth of a distant station

The short path azimuth of a distant station

6 / 11

What makes HF scatter signals often sound distorted?

The E region is not present

The ionospheric region involved is unstable

Ground waves are absorbing much of the signal

Energy is scattered into the skip zone through several different paths

7 / 11

Why are HF scatter signals in the skip zone usually weak?

Signals are scattered from the magnetosphere, which is not a good reflector

Propagation is via ducts in the F region, which absorb most of the energy

Only a small part of the signal energy is scattered into the skip zone

Propagation is via ground waves, which absorb most of the signal energy

8 / 11

What is near vertical incidence skywave (NVIS) propagation?

Short distance MF or HF propagation at high elevation angles

Long path HF propagation at sunrise and sunset

Double hop propagation near the LUF

Propagation near the MUF

9 / 11

Which ionospheric region is the most absorbent of signals below 10 MHz during daylight hours?

The F2 region

The E region

The F1 region

The D region

10 / 11

What type of propagation allows signals to be heard in the transmitting station’s skip zone?

Short-path

Scatter

Faraday rotation

Chordal hop

11 / 11

Which ionospheric region is closest to the surface of Earth?

The D region

The E region

The F1 region

The F2 region

Your score is

The average score is 90%

G4A – Station configuration and operation

Station configuration and operation

1 / 13

How does a noise blanker work?

By temporarily increasing received bandwidth

By redirecting noise pulses into a filter capacitor

By reducing receiver gain during a noise pulse

By clipping noise peaks

2 / 13

Why is automatic level control (ALC) used with an RF power amplifier?

To increase overall efficiency

To reduce harmonic radiation

To prevent excessive drive

To balance the transmitter audio frequency response

3 / 13

What is the benefit of using the opposite or “reverse” sideband when receiving CW?

Accidental out-of-band operation can be prevented

Interference from impulse noise will be eliminated

It may be possible to reduce or eliminate interference from other signals

More stations can be accommodated within a given signal passband

4 / 13

What is the purpose of using a receive attenuator?

To prevent receiver overload from strong incoming signals

To reduce power consumption when operating from batteries

To reduce excessive audio level on strong signals

To reduce the transmitter power when driving a linear amplifier

5 / 13

What is the purpose of delaying RF output after activating a transmitter’s keying line to an external amplifier?

To prevent transient overmodulation

To prevent key clicks on CW

To allow time for the amplifier power supply to reach operating level

To allow time for the amplifier to switch the antenna between the transceiver and the amplifier output

6 / 13

Which of the following is a common use of the dual-VFO feature on a transceiver?

To permit full duplex operation -- that is, transmitting and receiving at the same time

To improve frequency accuracy by allowing variable frequency output (VFO) operation

To allow transmitting on two frequencies at once

To transmit on one frequency and listen on another

7 / 13

What happens as a receiver’s noise reduction control level is increased?

Received frequency may become unstable

CW signals may become severely attenuated

Received frequency may shift several kHz

Received signals may become distorted

8 / 13

What is the purpose of the notch filter found on many HF transceivers?

To restrict the transmitter voice bandwidth

To reduce interference from carriers in the receiver passband

To remove interfering splatter generated by signals on adjacent frequencies

To eliminate receiver interference from impulse noise sources

9 / 13

What is the correct adjustment for the LOAD or COUPLING control of a vacuum tube RF power amplifier?

Desired power output without exceeding maximum allowable plate current

Minimum SWR on the antenna

Highest plate voltage while minimizing grid current

Minimum plate current without exceeding maximum allowable grid current

10 / 13

Why should the ALC system be inactive when transmitting AFSK data signals?

When using digital modes, too much ALC activity can cause the transmitter to overheat

All these choices are correct

The ALC action distorts the signal

ALC will invert the modulation of the AFSK mode

11 / 13

What is the purpose of an antenna tuner?

Reduce the power dissipation in the feedline to the antenna

Reduce the SWR in the feed line to the antenna

Increase power transfer from the transmitter to the feed line

All these choices are correct

12 / 13

What is the effect on plate current of the correct setting of a vacuum-tube RF power amplifier’s TUNE control?

A pronounced dip

No change will be observed

A slow, rhythmic oscillation

A pronounced peak

13 / 13

What is the function of an electronic keyer?

To allow time for switching the antenna from the receiver to the transmitter

Computer interface for PSK and RTTY operation

Automatic generation of dots and dashes for CW operation

Automatic transmit/receive switching

Your score is

The average score is 96%

G4B – Tests and test equipment

1 / 13

What item of test equipment contains horizontal and vertical channel amplifiers?

An ammeter

An oscilloscope

An ohmmeter

A signal generator

2 / 13

When is an analog multimeter preferred to a digital multimeter?

When high precision is desired

When testing logic circuits

When adjusting circuits for maximum or minimum values

When measuring the frequency of an oscillator

3 / 13

Which of the following is the best instrument to use for checking the keying waveform of a CW transmitter?

A wavemeter

A sidetone monitor

A field strength meter

An oscilloscope

4 / 13

Which of the following can be determined with a directional wattmeter?

Antenna front-to-back ratio

Standing wave ratio

Radio wave propagation

RF interference

5 / 13

Which of the following must be connected to an antenna analyzer when it is being used for SWR measurements?

Transmitter

All these choices are correct

Receiver

Antenna and feed line

6 / 13

What effect can strong signals from nearby transmitters have on an antenna analyzer?

Received power that interferes with SWR readings

All these choices are correct

Desensitization which can cause intermodulation products which interfere with impedance readings

Generation of harmonics which interfere with frequency readings

7 / 13

Why do voltmeters have high input impedance?

It improves the resolution of the readings

It improves the frequency response

It allows for higher voltages to be safely measured

It decreases the loading on circuits being measured

8 / 13

Which of the following can be measured with an antenna analyzer?

Front-to-back ratio of an antenna

Power output from a transmitter

Gain of a directional antenna

Impedance of coaxial cable

9 / 13

What signals are used to conduct a two-tone test?

Two non-harmonically related audio signals

Two audio frequency range square wave signals of equal amplitude

Two audio signals of the same frequency shifted 90 degrees

Two swept frequency tones

10 / 13

What is an advantage of a digital multimeter as compared to an analog multimeter?

Less prone to overload

Higher precision

Faster response

Better for measuring computer circuits

11 / 13

What signal source is connected to the vertical input of an oscilloscope when checking the RF envelope pattern of a transmitted signal?

An external RF oscillator

The attenuated RF output of the transmitter

The local oscillator of the transmitter

The transmitter balanced mixer output

12 / 13

What transmitter performance parameter does a two-tone test analyze?

Percentage of suppression of the carrier and undesired sideband for SSB

Linearity

Percentage of frequency modulation

Percentage of carrier phase shift

13 / 13

Which of the following is an advantage of an oscilloscope versus a digital voltmeter?

Complex impedances can be easily measured

Greater precision

An oscilloscope uses less power

Complex waveforms can be measured

Your score is

The average score is 100%

G4C – Interference to consumer electronics; grounding and bonding

Interference to consumer electronics; grounding and bonding

1 / 12

What sound is heard from an audio device experiencing RF interference from a single sideband phone transmitter?

Distorted speech

A steady hum whenever the transmitter is on the air

Clearly audible speech

On-and-off humming or clicking

2 / 12

What is a possible cause of high voltages that produce RF burns?

The ground rod is resonant

Insulated wire has been used for the ground wire

The ground wire has high impedance on that frequency

Flat braid rather than round wire has been used for the ground wire

3 / 12

Which of the following would reduce RF interference caused by common-mode current on an audio cable?

Place a ferrite choke on the cable

Add an additional insulating jacket to the cable

Connect the center conductor to the shield of all cables to short circuit the RFI signal

Ground the center conductor of the audio cable causing the interference

4 / 12

What is a possible effect of a resonant ground connection?

Overheating of ground straps

Corrosion of the ground rod

A ground loop

High RF voltages on the enclosures of station equipment

5 / 12

What sound is heard from an audio device experiencing RF interference from a CW transmitter?

A chirpy CW signal

Severely distorted audio

A CW signal at a nearly pure audio frequency

On-and-off humming or clicking

6 / 12

How can the effects of ground loops be minimized?

Connect all ground conductors in series

Bond equipment enclosures together

Avoid using lock washers and star washers when making ground connections

Connect the AC neutral conductor to the ground wire

7 / 12

What could be a symptom caused by a ground loop in your station’s audio connections?

You receive reports of “hum” on your station’s transmitted signal

An item of station equipment starts to draw excessive amounts of current

You receive reports of harmonic interference from your station

The SWR reading for one or more antennas is suddenly very high

8 / 12

Which of the following might be useful in reducing RF interference to audio frequency circuits?

Bypass capacitor

Bypass inductor

Forward-biased diode

Reverse-biased diode

9 / 12

Why should soldered joints not be used in lightning protection ground connections?

All these choices are correct

A soldered joint will likely be destroyed by the heat of a lightning strike

Solder has too high a dielectric constant to provide adequate lightning protection

Solder flux will prevent a low conductivity connection

10 / 12

Which of the following could be a cause of interference covering a wide range of frequencies?

Arcing at a poor electrical connection

Lack of rectification of the transmitter’s signal in power conductors

Not using a balun or line isolator to feed balanced antennas

Using a balun to feed an unbalanced antenna

11 / 12

What technique helps to minimize RF “hot spots” in an amateur station?

Bonding all equipment enclosures together

Using surge suppressor power outlets

Building all equipment in a metal enclosure

Placing low-pass filters on all feed lines

12 / 12

Why must all metal enclosures of station equipment be grounded?

It ensures that hazardous voltages cannot appear on the chassis

It prevents signal overload

It prevents a blown fuse in the event of an internal short circuit

It ensures that the neutral wire is grounded

Your score is

The average score is 97%

G4D – Speech processors; S meters; sideband operation near band edges

Speech processors; S meters; sideband operation near band edges

1 / 11

What frequency range is occupied by a 3 kHz LSB signal when the displayed carrier frequency is set to 7.178 MHz?

7.178 MHz to 7.184 MHz

7.1765 MHz to 7.1795 MHz

7.178 MHz to 7.181 MHz

7.175 MHz to 7.178 MHz

2 / 11

What does an S meter measure?

Received signal strength

Transmitter power output

Impedance

Carrier suppression

3 / 11

What is the effect of an incorrectly adjusted speech processor?

All these choices are correct

Distorted speech

Excessive background noise

Excess intermodulation products

4 / 11

What is the purpose of a speech processor in a transceiver?

Decrease high-frequency voice output to prevent out-of-band operation

Increase the apparent loudness of transmitted voice signals

Increase transmitter bass response for more natural-sounding SSB signals

Prevent distortion of voice signals

5 / 11

How close to the upper edge of a band’s phone segment should your displayed carrier frequency be when using 3 kHz wide USB?

At least 3 kHz below the edge of the band

At least 1 kHz below the edge of the segment

At least 1 kHz above the edge of the segment

At least 3 kHz above the edge of the band

6 / 11

How much change in signal strength is typically represented by one S unit?

12 dB

15 dB

6 dB

18 dB

7 / 11

How much must the power output of a transmitter be raised to change the S meter reading on a distant receiver from S8 to S9?

Approximately 8 times

Approximately 1.5 times

Approximately 4 times

Approximately 2 times

8 / 11

How does a speech processor affect a single sideband phone signal?

It increases average power

It reduces intermodulation distortion

It increases peak power

It reduces harmonic distortion

9 / 11

How does a signal that reads 20 dB over S9 compare to one that reads S9 on a receiver, assuming a properly calibrated S meter?

It is 20 times more powerful

It is 100 times more powerful

It is 20 times less powerful

It is 10 times less powerful

10 / 11

What frequency range is occupied by a 3 kHz USB signal with the displayed carrier frequency set to 14.347 MHz?

14.347 MHz to 14.647 MHz

14.3455 MHz to 14.3485 MHz

14.344 MHz to 14.347 MHz

14.347 MHz to 14.350 MHz

11 / 11

How close to the lower edge of a band’s phone segment should your displayed carrier frequency be when using 3 kHz wide LSB?

At least 1 kHz below the edge of the segment

At least 3 kHz above the edge of the segment

At least 3 kHz below the edge of the segment

At least 1 kHz above the edge of the segment

Your score is

The average score is 93%

G4E – Mobile and portable HF stations; alternative energy source operation

Mobile and portable HF stations; alternative energy source operation

1 / 10

Which of the following most limits an HF mobile installation?

The wire gauge of the DC power line to the transceiver

FCC rules limiting mobile output power on the 75-meter band

Efficiency of the electrically short antenna

“Picket fencing”

2 / 10

Why should a series diode be connected between a solar panel and a storage battery that is being charged by the panel?

To prevent discharge of the battery through the panel during times of low or no illumination

To limit the current flowing from the panel to a safe value

To prevent overload by regulating the charging voltage

To prevent damage to the battery due to excessive voltage at high illumination levels

3 / 10

In what configuration are the individual cells in a solar panel connected together?

Bypass

Series-parallel

Shunt

Full-wave bridge

4 / 10

Why should DC power for a 100-watt HF transceiver not be supplied by a vehicle’s auxiliary power socket?

Drawing more than 50 watts from this socket could cause the engine to overheat

The socket’s wiring may be inadequate for the current drawn by the transceiver

The socket is not wired with an RF-shielded power cable

The DC polarity of the socket is reversed from the polarity of modern HF transceivers

5 / 10

What is the approximate open-circuit voltage from a fully illuminated silicon photovoltaic cell?

0.5 VDC

1.38 VDC

0.02 VDC

0.2 VDC

6 / 10

What is one disadvantage of using a shortened mobile antenna as opposed to a full-size antenna?

Operating bandwidth may be very limited

Short antennas are more likely to cause distortion of transmitted signals

Q of the antenna will be very low

Harmonic radiation may increase

7 / 10

What is the purpose of a capacitance hat on a mobile antenna?

To increase the power handling capacity of a whip antenna

To lower the radiation angle

To reduce radiation resistance

To electrically lengthen a physically short antenna

8 / 10

What precaution should be taken when connecting a solar panel to a lithium iron phosphate battery?

A series resistor must be in place

Ground the solar panel outer metal framework

The solar panel must have a charge controller

Ensure the battery is placed terminals-up

9 / 10

Which of the following may cause receive interference to an HF transceiver installed in a vehicle?

The fuel delivery system

The battery charging system

All these choices are correct

The control computers

10 / 10

Which of the following direct, fused power connections would be the best for a 100-watt HF mobile installation?

To the alternator or generator using insulated heavy duty balanced transmission line

To the battery using heavy-gauge wire

To the alternator or generator using heavy-gauge wire

To the battery using insulated heavy duty balanced transmission line

Your score is

The average score is 100%

G5A – Reactance; inductance; capacitance; impedance; impedance transformation; resonance

Reactance; inductance; capacitance; impedance; impedance transformation; resonance

1 / 12

What letter is used to represent reactance?

2 / 12

What occurs in an LC circuit at resonance?

Current and voltage are equal

The circuit radiates all its energy in the form of radio waves

Inductive reactance and capacitive reactance cancel

Resistance is cancelled

3 / 12

How does an inductor react to AC?

As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases

As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases

As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases

As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases

4 / 12

What is impedance?

The ratio of current to voltage

The product of current and voltage

The product of current and reactance

The ratio of voltage to current

5 / 12

What is the term for the inverse of impedance?

Admittance

Reluctance

Conductance

Susceptance

6 / 12

What is reactance?

Reinforcement of the flow of alternating current caused by capacitance or inductance

Opposition to the flow of direct current caused by resistance

Reinforcement of the flow of direct current caused by resistance

Opposition to the flow of alternating current caused by capacitance or inductance

7 / 12

How does a capacitor react to AC?

As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases

As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases

As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases

As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases

8 / 12

What unit is used to measure reactance?

Ohm

Ampere

Farad

Siemens

9 / 12

Which of the following is opposition to the flow of alternating current in an inductor?

Conductance

Reluctance

Admittance

Reactance

10 / 12

Which of the following is opposition to the flow of alternating current in a capacitor?

Reactance

Admittance

Reluctance

Conductance

11 / 12

Which of the following devices can be used for impedance matching at radio frequencies?

A transformer

A length of transmission line

A Pi-network

All these choices are correct

12 / 12

What happens when inductive and capacitive reactance are equal in a series LC circuit?

Resonance causes impedance to be very high

Impedance is equal to the geometric mean of the inductance and capacitance

Impedance is equal to the arithmetic mean of the inductance and capacitance

Resonance causes impedance to be very low

Your score is

The average score is 82%

G5B – The decibel; current and voltage dividers; electrical power calculations; sine wave root-mean-square (RMS) values; PEP calculations

The decibel; current and voltage dividers; electrical power calculations; sine wave root-mean-square (RMS) values; PEP calculations

1 / 13

What is the PEP produced by 200 volts peak-to-peak across a 50-ohm dummy load?

100 watts

400 watts

353.5 watts

1.4 watts

2 / 13

What value of an AC signal produces the same power dissipation in a resistor as a DC voltage of the same value?

The reciprocal of the RMS value

The RMS value

The peak value

The peak-to-peak value

3 / 13

What is the ratio of PEP to average power for an unmodulated carrier?

2.00

0.707

1.414

1.00

4 / 13

What is the output PEP of 500 volts peak-to-peak across a 50-ohm load?

2500 watts

5000 watts

625 watts

8.75 watts

5 / 13

How many watts are consumed when a current of 7.0 milliamperes flows through a 1,250-ohm resistance?

Approximately 11 watts

Approximately 61 milliwatts

Approximately 61 watts

Approximately 11 milliwatts

6 / 13

What is the peak-to-peak voltage of a sine wave with an RMS voltage of 120 volts?

84.8 volts

240.0 volts

339.4 volts

169.7 volts

7 / 13

What is the output PEP of an unmodulated carrier if the average power is 1060 watts?

530 watts

2120 watts

1500 watts

1060 watts

8 / 13

What percentage of power loss is equivalent to a loss of 1 dB?

25.9 percent

10.9 percent

12.2 percent

20.6 percent

9 / 13

How does the total current relate to the individual currents in a circuit of parallel resistors?

It equals the sum of the currents through each branch

It equals the average of the branch currents

It is the sum of the reciprocal of each individual voltage drop

It decreases as more parallel branches are added to the circuit

10 / 13

How many watts of electrical power are consumed if 400 VDC is supplied to an 800-ohm load?

60 watts

2.4 watts

24 watts

6 watts

11 / 13

What is the RMS voltage across a 50-ohm dummy load dissipating 1200 watts?

245 volts

692 volts

346 volts

173 volts

12 / 13

What dB change represents a factor of two increase or decrease in power?

Approximately 9 dB

Approximately 2 dB

Approximately 6 dB

Approximately 3 dB

13 / 13

What is the RMS voltage of a sine wave with a value of 17 volts peak?

8.5 volts

24 volts

34 volts

12 volts

Your score is

The average score is 82%

G5C – Resistors, capacitors, and inductors in series and parallel; transformers

Resistors, capacitors, and inductors in series and parallel; transformers

1 / 14

What is the inductance of three 10-millihenry inductors connected in parallel?

3.3 henries

30 millihenries

3.3 millihenries

0.30 henries

2 / 14

What causes a voltage to appear across the secondary winding of a transformer when an AC voltage source is connected across its primary winding?

Capacitive coupling

Mutual capacitance

Displacement current coupling

Mutual inductance

3 / 14

What is the capacitance of three 100-microfarad capacitors connected in series?

3.0 microfarads

33.3 microfarads

0.33 microfarads

300 microfarads

4 / 14

What is the approximate total resistance of a 100- and a 200-ohm resistor in parallel?

150 ohms

67 ohms

300 ohms

75 ohms

5 / 14

Why is the primary winding wire of a voltage step-up transformer usually a larger size than that of the secondary winding?

To ensure that the volume of the primary winding is equal to the volume of the secondary winding

To accommodate the higher current of the primary

To improve the coupling between the primary and secondary

To prevent parasitic oscillations due to resistive losses in the primary

6 / 14

What transformer turns ratio matches an antenna’s 600-ohm feed point impedance to a 50-ohm coaxial cable?

3.5 to 1

12 to 1

144 to 1

24 to 1

7 / 14

What is the equivalent capacitance of two 5.0-nanofarad capacitors and one 750-picofarad capacitor connected in parallel?

3,583 picofarads

1,733 picofarads

576.9 nanofarads

10.750 nanofarads

8 / 14

What is the inductance of a circuit with a 20-millihenry inductor connected in series with a 50-millihenry inductor?

1,000 millihenries

7 millihenries

14.3 millihenries

70 millihenries

9 / 14

What is the total resistance of a 10-, a 20-, and a 50-ohm resistor connected in parallel?

0.17 ohms

17 ohms

5.9 ohms

80 ohms

10 / 14

What is the capacitance of a 20-microfarad capacitor connected in series with a 50-microfarad capacitor?

0.07 microfarads

70 microfarads

1,000 microfarads

14.3 microfarads

11 / 14

What is the output voltage if an input signal is applied to the secondary winding of a 4:1 voltage step-down transformer instead of the primary winding?

Additional resistance must be added in series with the primary to prevent overload

The input voltage is multiplied by 4

The input voltage is divided by 4

Additional resistance must be added in parallel with the secondary to prevent overload

12 / 14

What is the voltage output of a transformer with a 500-turn primary and a 1500-turn secondary when 120 VAC is applied to the primary?

25.5 volts

40 volts

360 volts

120 volts

13 / 14

Which of the following components should be added to an inductor to increase the inductance?

An inductor in parallel

A capacitor in parallel

A capacitor in series

An inductor in series

14 / 14

Which of the following components should be added to a capacitor to increase the capacitance?

An inductor in series

A capacitor in series

A capacitor in parallel

An inductor in parallel

Your score is

The average score is 78%

G6A – Resistors; capacitors; inductors; rectifiers; solid-state diodes and transistors; vacuum tubes; batteries

Resistors; capacitors; inductors; rectifiers; solid-state diodes and transistors; vacuum tubes; batteries

1 / 12

Which of the following is characteristic of an electrolytic capacitor?

Tight tolerance

Much less leakage than any other type

High capacitance for a given volume

Inexpensive RF capacitor

2 / 12

What are the operating points for a bipolar transistor used as a switch?

Saturation and cutoff

The active region (between cutoff and saturation)

Peak and valley current points

Enhancement and depletion modes

3 / 12

What is the minimum allowable discharge voltage for maximum life of a standard 12-volt lead-acid battery?

10.5 volts

6 volts

8.5 volts

12 volts

4 / 12

What is the approximate forward threshold voltage of a germanium diode?

0.7 volts

1.0 volts

0.3 volts

0.1 volt

5 / 12

Which of the following describes MOSFET construction?

The gate is separated from the channel by a thin insulating layer

The source is separated from the drain by a thin insulating layer

The gate is formed by a back-biased junction

The source is formed by depositing metal on silicon

6 / 12

Why should wire-wound resistors not be used in RF circuits?

The resistor’s tolerance value would not be adequate

The resistor’s inductance could make circuit performance unpredictable

The resistor could overheat

The resistor’s internal capacitance would detune the circuit

7 / 12

What is an advantage of batteries with low internal resistance?

High discharge current

Rapid recharge

High voltage

Long life

8 / 12

What is the approximate forward threshold voltage of a silicon junction diode?

0.1 volt

0.7 volts

1.0 volts

0.3 volts

9 / 12

What happens when an inductor is operated above its self-resonant frequency?

It becomes capacitive

Catastrophic failure is likely

Its reactance increases

Harmonics are generated

10 / 12

Which of the following is characteristic of low voltage ceramic capacitors?

High capacitance for given volume

Comparatively low cost

Tight tolerance

High stability

11 / 12

Which element of a vacuum tube regulates the flow of electrons between cathode and plate?

Suppressor grid

Screen grid

Trigger electrode

Control grid

12 / 12

What is the primary purpose of a screen grid in a vacuum tube?

To increase efficiency

To reduce grid-to-plate capacitance

To increase the control grid resistance

To decrease plate resistance

Your score is

The average score is 81%

G6B – Analog and digital integrated circuits (ICs); microwave ICs (MMICs); display devices; RF connectors; ferrite cores

Analog and digital integrated circuits (ICs); microwave ICs (MMICs); display devices; RF connectors; ferrite cores

1 / 11

What is an advantage of using a ferrite core toroidal inductor?

Large values of inductance may be obtained

The magnetic properties of the core may be optimized for a specific range of frequencies

All these choices are correct

Most of the magnetic field is contained in the core

2 / 11

Which of the following is an advantage of CMOS integrated circuits compared to TTL integrated circuits?

Low power consumption

High power handling capability

Better suited for power supply regulation

Better suited for RF amplification

3 / 11

What is an SMA connector?

A connector designed for serial multiple access signals

A type of push-on connector intended for high-voltage applications

A type-S to type-M adaptor

A small threaded connector suitable for signals up to several GHz

4 / 11

Which of the following describes a type N connector?

A nickel plated version of the PL-259

A small bayonet connector used for data circuits

A low noise figure VHF connector

A moisture-resistant RF connector useful to 10 GHz

5 / 11

Which of these connector types is commonly used for low frequency or dc signal connections to a transceiver?

BNC

Type N

RCA Phono

PL-259

6 / 11

How does a ferrite bead or core reduce common-mode RF current on the shield of a coaxial cable?

It converts common-mode current to differential mode current

Ferrites expel magnetic fields

By creating an out-of-phase current to cancel the common-mode current

By creating an impedance in the current’s path

7 / 11

What kind of device is an integrated circuit operational amplifier?

MMIC

Digital

Programmable Logic

Analog

8 / 11

What is meant by the term MMIC?

Monolithic Microwave Integrated Circuit

Mode Modulated Integrated Circuit

Metal Monolayer Integrated Circuit

Multi-Mode Integrated Circuit

9 / 11

What is a typical upper frequency limit for low SWR operation of 50-ohm BNC connectors?

4 GHz

500 MHz

40 GHz

50 MHz

10 / 11

What determines the performance of a ferrite core at different frequencies?

The ratio of outer diameter to inner diameter

Its thickness

The composition, or “mix,” of materials used

Its conductivity

11 / 11

How is an LED biased when emitting light?

In the tunnel-effect region

Forward biased

Reverse biased

At the Zener voltage

Your score is

The average score is 97%

G7A – Power supplies; schematic symbols

Power supplies; schematic symbols

1 / 12

Which symbol in figure G7-1 represents an NPN junction transistor?

Symbol 2

Symbol 7

Symbol 11

Symbol 1

2 / 12

Which of the following is characteristic of a switchmode power supply as compared to a linear power supply?

Faster switching time makes higher output voltage possible

Fewer circuit components are required

Inherently more stable

High-frequency operation allows the use of smaller components

3 / 12

What portion of the AC cycle is converted to DC by a full-wave rectifier?

90 degrees

360 degrees

180 degrees

270 degrees

4 / 12

Which of the following components are used in a power supply filter network?

Capacitors and inductors

Diodes

All these choices are correct

Transformers and transducers

5 / 12

What portion of the AC cycle is converted to DC by a half-wave rectifier?

90 degrees

270 degrees

360 degrees

180 degrees

6 / 12

What is the function of a power supply bleeder resistor?

It discharges the filter capacitors when power is removed

It eliminates ground loop current

It removes shock hazards from the induction coils

It acts as a fuse for excess voltage

7 / 12

Which type of rectifier circuit uses two diodes and a center-tapped transformer?

Full-wave bridge

Full-wave

Synchronous

Half-wave

8 / 12

Which symbol in figure G7-1 represents a Zener diode?

Symbol 11

Symbol 4

Symbol 1

Symbol 5

9 / 12

Which symbol in Figure G7-1 represents a solid core transformer?

Symbol 7

Symbol 4

Symbol 1

Symbol 6

10 / 12

What is the output waveform of an unfiltered full-wave rectifier connected to a resistive load?

A series of DC pulses at twice the frequency of the AC input

A series of DC pulses at the same frequency as the AC input

A steady DC voltage

A sine wave at half the frequency of the AC input

11 / 12

What is characteristic of a half-wave rectifier in a power supply?

The output voltage is two times the peak input voltage

The ripple frequency is twice that of a full-wave rectifier

More current can be drawn from the half-wave rectifier

Only one diode is required

12 / 12

Which symbol in figure G7-1 represents a field effect transistor?

Symbol 4

Symbol 1

Symbol 2

Symbol 5

Your score is

The average score is 87%

G7B – Digital circuits; amplifiers and oscillators

1 / 11

Which of the following are basic components of a sine wave oscillator?

An amplifier and a divider

A frequency multiplier and a mixer

A filter and an amplifier operating in a feedback loop

A circulator and a filter operating in a feed-forward loop

2 / 11

How many states does a 3-bit binary counter have?

3 / 11

How is the efficiency of an RF power amplifier determined?

Divide the DC input power by the DC output power

Add the RF input power to the DC output power

Multiply the RF input power by the reciprocal of the RF output power

Divide the RF output power by the DC input power

4 / 11

In a Class A amplifier, what percentage of the time does the amplifying device conduct?

50%

More than 50% but less than 100%

Less than 50%

100%

5 / 11

What determines the frequency of an LC oscillator?

The number of stages in the divider

The number of stages in the counter

The inductance and capacitance in the tank circuit

The time delay of the lag circuit

6 / 11

Which of the following describes a linear amplifier?

A Class C high efficiency amplifier

An amplifier used as a frequency multiplier

Any RF power amplifier used in conjunction with an amateur transceiver

An amplifier in which the output preserves the input waveform

7 / 11

Which of the following describes the function of a two-input AND gate?

Output is low only when both inputs are high

Output is high when either or both inputs are low

Output is high only when both inputs are high

Output is low when either or both inputs are high

8 / 11

What is the purpose of neutralizing an amplifier?

To cut off the final amplifier during standby periods

To keep the carrier on frequency

To eliminate self-oscillations

To limit the modulation index

9 / 11

For which of the following modes is a Class C power stage appropriate for amplifying a modulated signal?

SSB

All these choices are correct

10 / 11

What is a shift register?

An analog mixer

An array of operational amplifiers used for tri-state arithmetic operations

A digital mixer

A clocked array of circuits that passes data in steps along the array

11 / 11

Which of these classes of amplifiers has the highest efficiency?

Class A

Class AB

Class B

Class C

Your score is

The average score is 89%

G7C – Transceiver design; filters; oscillators; digital signal processing (DSP)

1 / 14

What term specifies a filter’s attenuation inside its passband?

Return loss

Ultimate rejection

Insertion loss

2 / 14

Which parameter affects receiver sensitivity?

Demodulator stage bandwidth

All these choices are correct

Input amplifier gain

Input amplifier noise figure

3 / 14

What is the phase difference between the I and Q RF signals that software-defined radio (SDR) equipment uses for modulation and demodulation?

Zero

90 degrees

180 degrees

45 degrees

4 / 14

What output is produced by a balanced modulator?

Double-sideband modulated RF

Audio extracted from the modulation signal

Frequency modulated RF

Audio with equalized frequency response

5 / 14

What circuit is used to select one of the sidebands from a balanced modulator?

IF amplifier

RF amplifier

Carrier oscillator

Filter

6 / 14

What term specifies a filter’s maximum ability to reject signals outside its passband?

Insertion loss

Ultimate rejection

Rolloff

Notch depth

7 / 14

What is one reason to use an impedance matching transformer at a transmitter output?

To reduce power supply ripple

To minimize radiation resistance

To minimize transmitter power output

To present the desired impedance to the transmitter and feed line

8 / 14

The bandwidth of a band-pass filter is measured between what two frequencies?

Pole and zero

Cutoff and rolloff

Upper and lower half-power

Image and harmonic

9 / 14

Which of these functions is performed by software in a software-defined radio (SDR)?

Modulation

Filtering

Detection

All these choices are correct

10 / 14

Which of the following is an advantage of a digital signal processing (DSP) filter compared to an analog filter?

The DSP filter is much more effective at VHF frequencies

A wide range of filter bandwidths and shapes can be created

Fewer digital components are required

Mixing products are greatly reduced

11 / 14

How is a product detector used?

Used in a single sideband receiver to extract the modulated signal

Used in test gear to detect spurious mixing products

Used in an FM receiver to filter out unwanted sidebands

Used in transmitter to perform frequency multiplication

12 / 14

Which of the following is characteristic of a direct digital synthesizer (DDS)?

Relatively high-power output

Extremely narrow tuning range

Pure sine wave output

Variable output frequency with the stability of a crystal oscillator

13 / 14

What is the frequency above which a low-pass filter’s output power is less than half the input power?

Rolloff frequency

Notch frequency

Neper frequency

Cutoff frequency

14 / 14

What is an advantage of using I-Q modulation with software-defined radios (SDRs)?

Minimum detectible signal level is reduced

The need for high resolution analog-to-digital converters is eliminated

Automatic conversion of the signal from digital to analog

All types of modulation can be created with appropriate processing

Your score is

The average score is 100%

G8A – Carriers and modulation: AM, FM, and single sideband; modulation envelope; digital modulation; overmodulation; link budgets and link margins

Carriers and modulation: AM, FM, and single sideband; modulation envelope; digital modulation; overmodulation; link budgets and link margins

1 / 13

What is the modulation envelope of an AM signal?

The bandwidth of the modulated signal

Spurious signals that envelop nearby frequencies

The waveform created by connecting the peak values of the modulated signal

The carrier frequency that contains the signal

2 / 13

What is QPSK modulation?

Modulation using quasi-parallel to serial conversion to reduce bandwidth

Modulation in which digital data is transmitted using 0-, 90-, 180- and 270-degrees phase shift to represent pairs of bits

Modulation using quadra-pole sideband keying to generate spread spectrum signals

Modulation using Fast Fourier Transforms to generate frequencies at the first, second, third, and fourth harmonics of the carrier frequency to improve noise immunity

3 / 13

What is the name of the process that changes the instantaneous frequency of an RF wave to convey information?

Frequency transformation

Frequency conversion

Frequency convolution

Frequency modulation

4 / 13

What type of modulation is used by FT8?

8-bit direct sequence spread spectrum

Vestigial sideband

Amplitude compressed AM

8-tone frequency shift keying

5 / 13

Which of the following is an effect of overmodulation?

Excessive bandwidth

Frequency drift

Insufficient audio

Insufficient bandwidth

6 / 13

What emission is produced by a reactance modulator connected to a transmitter RF amplifier stage?

Phase modulation

Pulse modulation

Multiplex modulation

Amplitude modulation

7 / 13

What is the name of the process that changes the phase angle of an RF signal to convey information?

Phase convolution

Phase inversion

Phase transformation

Phase modulation

8 / 13

What type of modulation varies the instantaneous power level of the RF signal?

Power modulation

Phase modulation

Frequency modulation

Amplitude modulation

9 / 13

Which of the following is characteristic of QPSK31?

Phase modulation

Single sideband

Vestigial sideband

All these choices are correct

10 / 13

What is meant by the term “flat-topping,” when referring to an amplitude-modulated phone signal?

Signal distortion caused by insufficient collector current

The transmitter’s carrier is properly suppressed

Signal distortion caused by excessive drive or speech levels

The transmitter’s automatic level control (ALC) is properly adjusted

11 / 13

How is direct binary FSK modulation generated?

By reconfiguring the CW keying input to act as a tone generator

By changing an oscillator’s frequency directly with a digital control signal

By keying an FM transmitter with a sub-audible tone

By using a transceiver’s computer data interface protocol to change frequencies

12 / 13

What is link margin?

The opposite of fade margin

Transmit power minus receiver sensitivity

Receiver sensitivity plus 3 dB

The difference between received power level and minimum required signal level at the input to the receiver

13 / 13

What is a link budget?

The difference between transmit power and receiver sensitivity

The sum of transmit power and antenna gains minus system losses as seen at the receiver

The sum of antenna gains minus system losses

The financial costs associated with operating a radio link

Your score is

The average score is 88%

G8B – Frequency changing; bandwidths of various modes; deviation; intermodulation

1 / 13

What is the stage in a VHF FM transmitter that generates a harmonic of a lower frequency signal to reach the desired operating frequency?

Reactance modulator

Mixer

Multiplier

Balanced converter

2 / 13

Why is it good to match receiver bandwidth to the bandwidth of the operating mode?

It improves impedance matching of the antenna

It results in the best signal-to-noise ratio

It minimizes power consumption in the receiver

It is required by FCC rules

3 / 13

Which intermodulation products are closest to the original signal frequencies?

Intercept point

Even-order

Second harmonics

Odd-order

4 / 13

Which mixer input is varied or tuned to convert signals of different frequencies to an intermediate frequency (IF)?

Local oscillator

Image frequency

RF input

Beat frequency oscillator

5 / 13

Why is it important to know the duty cycle of the mode you are using when transmitting?

To aid in tuning your transmitter

To allow time for the other station to break in during a transmission

Some modes have high duty cycles that could exceed the transmitter’s average power rating

To prevent overmodulation

6 / 13

Which of the following is an odd-order intermodulation product of frequencies F1 and F2?

5F1-3F2

3F1-F2

All these choices are correct

2F1-F2

7 / 13

What is the frequency deviation for a 12.21 MHz reactance modulated oscillator in a 5 kHz deviation, 146.52 MHz FM phone transmitter?

5 kHz

101.75 Hz

416.7 Hz

60 kHz

8 / 13

What is the relationship between transmitted symbol rate and bandwidth?

Bandwidth is half the symbol rate

Lower symbol rates require wider bandwidth

Symbol rate and bandwidth are not related

Higher symbol rates require wider bandwidth

9 / 13

What combination of a mixer’s Local Oscillator (LO) and RF input frequencies is found in the output?

The ratio

The average

The sum and difference

The arithmetic product

10 / 13

What is another term for the mixing of two RF signals?

Phase inversion

Heterodyning

Frequency inversion

Synthesizing

11 / 13

What is the total bandwidth of an FM phone transmission having 5 kHz deviation and 3 kHz modulating frequency?

8 kHz

3 kHz

5 kHz

16 kHz

12 / 13

What is the term for interference from a signal at twice the IF frequency from the desired signal?

Image response

Mixer interference

Intermediate interference

Quadrature response

13 / 13

What process combines two signals in a non-linear circuit to produce unwanted spurious outputs?

Rolloff

Intermodulation

Heterodyning

Detection

Your score is

The average score is 92%

G8C – Digital emission modes

1 / 16

What is indicated on a waterfall display by one or more vertical lines on either side of a data mode or RTTY signal?

Long path propagation

Insufficient modulation

Overmodulation

Backscatter propagation

2 / 16

How does forward error correction (FEC) allow the receiver to correct data errors?

By controlling transmitter output power for optimum signal strength

By using a parity bit with each character

By using the Varicode character set

By transmitting redundant information with the data

3 / 16

Which is true of mesh network microwave nodes?

If one node fails, a packet may still reach its target station via an alternate node

Links between two nodes in a network may have different frequencies and bandwidths

Having more nodes increases signal strengths

More nodes reduce overall microwave out of band interference

4 / 16

What action results from a failure to exchange information due to excessive transmission attempts when using an ARQ mode?

Encoding reverts to the default character set

The connection is dropped

The checksum overflows

Packets will be routed incorrectly

5 / 16

What does an FT8 signal report of +3 mean?

The signal is 3 dB over S9

The signal-to-noise ratio is equivalent to +3dB in a 2.5 kHz bandwidth

The signal is 3 times the noise level of an equivalent SSB signal

The signal is S3 (weak signals)

6 / 16

Which type of code is used for sending characters in a PSK31 signal?

Volumetric

Viterbi

Binary

Varicode

7 / 16

Which of the following provide digital voice modes?

WSPR, MFSK16, and EasyPAL

FT8, FT4, and FST4

DMR, D-STAR, and SystemFusion

Winlink, PACTOR II, and PACTOR III

8 / 16

Which of the following describes a waterfall display?

Frequency is horizontal, signal strength is vertical, time is intensity

Frequency is vertical, signal strength is horizontal, time is intensity

Frequency is horizontal, signal strength is intensity, time is vertical

Frequency is vertical, signal strength is intensity, time is horizontal

9 / 16

How are the two separate frequencies of a Frequency Shift Keyed (FSK) signal identified?

High and low

Mark and space

On and off

Dot and dash

10 / 16

In an ARQ mode, what is meant by a NAK response to a transmitted packet?

Entire file received correctly

Receiving station connected and ready for transmissions

Request retransmission of the packet

Packet was received without error

11 / 16

Which of the following statements is true about PSK31?

Upper case letters are sent with more power

Error correction is used to ensure accurate message reception

Upper case letters use longer Varicode bit sequences and thus slow down transmission

Higher power is needed as compared to RTTY for similar error rates

12 / 16

Which of the following narrow-band digital modes can receive signals with very low signal-to-noise ratios?

FT8

MSK144

AMTOR

MFSK32

13 / 16

On what band do amateurs share channels with the unlicensed Wi-Fi service?

2.4 GHz

432 MHz

902 MHz

10.7 GHz

14 / 16

What part of a packet radio frame contains the routing and handling information?

Preamble

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